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I was working on my homework and I got stuck on this exercise: We define $f$ as type $A$ if: $\forall x\in \mathbf{R}\ \exists y\in \mathbf{R}(y\geq x \land |f(y)|\geq 1) $ We define $f$ as $B$ type if: $\exists x\in \mathbf{R}\ \forall y\in \mathbf{R}(y\geq x \Rightarrow |f(y)|\geq 1) $.

I have to understand (and write a proof) if an $A$ function is also a $B$ function and if a $B$ function is also an $A$ function. For what I undestood the first one is false (I assume $f=sin(x)$ and for all $z_{n}=2\pi+n$ I can use $y=z_{n+1}\geq z_{n}\geq x$). And the second one is true (by definition if I'm not wrong). My question is how could I write this in formal language? Does somebody have a book\website raccomandation to learn how to use formal language? Thanks everybody I hope you have a nice day! :)

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Let's show that $B\rightarrow A$. Infact take $f$ of type $B$ and take $x\in\mathbb{R}$, you know that it exists $x_0\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $$\forall y\in \mathbb{R}(y\geq x_0\rightarrow|f(y)|\geq 1).$$ So take $y=\max{(x,x_0)}$, you have that $$y\geq x\wedge |f(y)|\geq 1.$$ The converse is not true, infact you know that intervals $[n,n+1)$ are a partition of $\mathbb{R}$ with $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, so for all $x$ it exists an unique $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $x\in[n,n+1)$, so put $$f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } 3 \mid n,\\[2mm] 0 & \text{otherwise}, \end{cases} .$$ Clearly $f$ is of type $A$ since if you take $x\in\mathbb{R}$ you can always chose an interval of the form $[3n,3n+1)$ such that $3n>x$ and pick $y\in[3n,3n+1)$, so $$|f(y)|=1\geq 1.$$ Obviously $f$ is not of type $B$, since for every $x\in\mathbb{R}$ it will always exists an $y\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $y\geq x$ and $f(y)=0$.

Edit: I'm assuming that $\textbf{R}$ is $\mathbb{R}$

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