Question is in the title :). I need to know if it is possible or not.
Here is how to do it for table
SELECT
OBJECT_NAME(f.parent_object_id) as tbl,
OBJECT_NAME(fc.referenced_object_id) as refTable,
COL_NAME(f.parent_object_id, fc.parent_column_id) as foreignKeyColumnName
FROM sys.foreign_keys f
INNER JOIN sys.foreign_key_columns AS fc ON f.OBJECT_ID = fc.constraint_object_id
WHERE f.parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID('dbo.TableName')