Use value from backing bean in javascript

Question

What I want is to use a boolean value from applicationContext.properties (Jboss configuration file) in my javascript.

Currently I use Spring to inject a value configured in applicationContext.properties into my backingbean. Then I put an output text in my jsp like this

<h:outputText id="idValue" styleClass="foo" value="" rendered="#{bean.isRendered}"/>

In my JavaScript I try following

  jQuery(function(){
     bRedirect = jQuery(".foo").value != undefined;
     ...

All this looks so terrible to me, even though it works fine. There must be a smarter way than doing what I do.

Note that I am running JSF1.2 and therefore must use jQuery instead of $ and also select by unique class (foo) and not by id, which may be bad practice as well.

Thank you in advance. alfons

You say you must select by class, yet your example is selecting by ID? As far as practise goes, your example is fine. Selecting by class is a perfectly ligitimate practice. — Rory McCrossan
– Rory McCrossan, Commented Dec 1, 2011 at 9:50
My fault. Wanted to use class selector. Edited that in question — AlfonsSocken
– AlfonsSocken, Commented Dec 1, 2011 at 10:07
@RoryMcCrossan I primarily mentioned that I have to select by class because I wanted to anticipate answers guiding me to use id selection due to performance advantages. see Improve jQuery — AlfonsSocken
– AlfonsSocken, Commented Dec 1, 2011 at 10:19
As to selecting JSF elements by ID: stackoverflow.com/a/7928290/157882 — BalusC
– BalusC, Commented Dec 1, 2011 at 11:04

BenMorel · Accepted Answer · 2014-01-15 23:28:25Z

1

Assuming the function is to be called whenever part is rendered you can embed just your function call in the template:

<script type="text/javascript">
  myFunction("#{springExpressionForBooleanValue}")
</script>

and myFunction definition resides in .js file not processed by JSF. I can't see why you are unable to use $ to address jQuery object in such scenario.

If the function is to be called as a result of some interaction you can make it part of onclick/oblur etc attribute of your JSF component.

You can also embed entire function in the script tag but I think it's better to separate JavaScript logic from your templates.

edited Jan 15, 2014 at 23:28

BenMorel

37k52 gold badges208 silver badges339 bronze badges

answered Dec 1, 2011 at 10:08

mrembisz

12.9k7 gold badges38 silver badges33 bronze badges

Sign up to request clarification or add additional context in comments.

2 Comments

AlfonsSocken Over a year ago

Anytime I tried something like this I got 'PWC6228: #{...} not allowed in a template text body.' BTW my function should be called on dom ready

mrembisz Over a year ago

@AlfonsSocken have a look here then: stackoverflow.com/questions/8213620/…

AlfonsSocken · Accepted Answer · 2012-02-13 12:01:34Z

0

Weeks after I fixed the problem, I came across t:jsValueSet today.

Which, in my case, would have been the best fitting way to solve above problem. You can use it as follows:

<t:jsValueSet name="test" value="#{myBean.myInfoText}"/>

In your javaScript you now can access the new variable called test:

 <script type="text/javascript">
   alert (test);
 </script>

answered Feb 13, 2012 at 12:01

AlfonsSocken

682 silver badges10 bronze badges

Collectives™ on Stack Overflow

Use value from backing bean in javascript

2 Answers 2

2 Comments

Comments

Your Answer

Linked

Hot Network Questions

Collectives™ on Stack Overflow

2 Answers 2

2 Comments

Comments

Your Answer

Sign up or log in

Post as a guest

Linked

Related